"men who have sex with men" is NOT a good translation of 1 Cor 6:9

I recently received an email from Colin Smith of gaysandslaves.com encouraging me to contact the NIV Committee and recommend that they change their translation of 1 Corinthians 6:9 from homosexual offenders to "men who have sex with men."

While I am thankful that Colin is my beloved brother in Christ, I do not agree with him on the issue at hand.

Here is my response.

To suggest THAT as an accurate rendering of malakoi and arsenokoitai is deeply offensive to gay men for many reasons.

First, malakoi and arsenokoitai are rarely, if ever used with that meaning (according to conservative heterosexual scholar, Dr. Gordon Fee).

I list the first 56 uses of the arsenokoit stem on my website (which covers the times the word is found in Greek literature during the first 600 years of church history). arsenokoitai was NEVER used with the meaning, "men who have sex with men" in its first 56 uses during the first 600 years of church history.

The Greek word, arsenokoitai, where there is enough information in the context to guess at its meaning, indicated:

1. Rape
2. Shrine prostitution, according to Philo the Alexandrian Jewish philosopher
3. Humans having sex with angels or the gods, or
4. A man having sex with his wife

Second, switching from "homosexual" to "men who have sex with men" does nothing to improve the translational difficulties of the NIV. To phrase it, "men who have sex with men" is a flat-out negative blast at EVERY gay man in committed partnership. It makes the verse say that gay men in committed partnership will NOT have a heavenly inheritance or will NOT go to heaven.

Third, there is absolutely NO linguistic evidence that Greek speaking people in the first century used the word arsenokoitai to mean "men who have sex with men."

Fourth, "men who have sex with men" is an interpretation of 1 Cor 6:9 based on anti-gay bias and guesswork, not historic usage of arsenokoitai. Dr. Gordon Fee, noted heterosexual Greek scholar (in his commentary on 1 Corinthians), admits that translating 1 Cor 6:9 to mean "homosexual" is "a best guess." He then admits that we do not know what the word arsenokoitai means.

In my opinion, it sends the wrong message to ask gays and lesbians to request that the NIV committee translate 1 Cor 6:9 in a way that attacks gay men in committed partnership, "men who have sex with men," when there is NO historical evidence that anyone in the first century used arsenokoitai with that meaning.

Fifth, if there was strong historical substantiation that arsenokoitai meant "men who have sex with men," then the anti-gay crowd might have a case.

But given the fact that there is no historical evidence which points to arsenokoitai meaning, "men who have sex with men," it is a horrible attack on gay men in committed partnership to suggest THAT as the meaning.

"Men who have sex with men" is NOT more accurate and is NOT less offensive.

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Arsenokoites

On BNET, Gary Jepsen has a 9 page article in which he attempts to prove that arsenokoites (in 1 Cor 6:9), refers to homosexuality in general.

As usual with christian scholars, Jepsen fails miserably in his attempt to make the Bible say that God condemns loving homosexual partnerships.

Because I cannot post a response to his article without joining BNET, I am posting my response here.

Gary-

Your article, while interesting, makes as many leaps of illogic as you accuse Dale Martin of making. For example:

"The best we can say after examining Martin's argument regarding later material is that arsenokoites might have been occasionally used in texts considerably later than Paul to designate homosexual rape or sex by economic exploitation. On the other hand, it may also have been used to refer to homosexuality in general"

Is it possible you are unaware that the arsenokoit stem was never used in antiquity "to refer to homosexuality in general." To assert that "homosexuality in general" may have been its meaning is irresponsible (and also wishful thinking).

"Thus, it is no stretch to see how Paul, who undoubtedly would have been familiar with these verses from the Septuagint, could have from their influence put the two words together to form a new word, arsenokoites, and as he did so, clearly had in mind "a man bedding a male as a female" (Lev 20:13)"

That is such an odd and off-base conclusion, given the fact that Philo and other first century Jews viewed Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 (and Deuteronomy 23:17) as presenting Moses' (and God's) prohibition of shrine prostitution.

“(40) And I imagine that the cause of this is that among many nations there are actually rewards given for intemperance and effeminacy. At all events one may see men-women [androgynes] continually strutting through the market place at midday, and leading the processions in festivals;

and, impious men as they are, having received by lot the charge of the temple, and beginning the sacred and initiating rites, and concerned even in the holy mysteries of Ceres

[Ceres is another name for Cybele, the fertility goddess first century Romans referred to as the Mater Deum or Mother of the gods]. Remember, Philo lived from 20 BC to AD 40. He probably wrote this around AD 35.

(41) And some of these persons have even carried their admiration of these delicate pleasures of youth so far that they have desired wholly to change their condition for that of women, and have castrated themselves and have clothed themselves in purple robes...

[Philo here describes the castrated Galli priests who served Cybele or other fertility goddesses worshiped in Rome].

(42) But if there was a general indignation against those who venture to do such things, as was felt by our lawgiver..." [Moses was the Jewish Lawgiver. Philo refers to Moses' writings in Leviticus 18:22; 20:13 and Deuteronomy 23:17]

Philo, The Special Laws, III, VII, 40-42.

If historical facts (instead of anti-gay hysteria) guide our understanding of the meaning of the arsenokoit stem, we have no historical, factual reason to believe that the Greek word, arsenokoitai, ever referred to homosexuality in general, since it was never used that way in antiquity.

Since you believe the arsenokoit stem did refer to homosexuality in general, please present some ancient references where that is the case.

Of course, you are unable to present even one ancient reference where the arsenokoit stem referred to homosexuality in general.

The reason is, our ancient ancestors never used the arsenokoit stem with that meaning.

Based on historical usage, we have every reason to believe the arsenokoit stem referred to shrine prostitution (based on Philo's first century understanding) or rape, (based on its usage by Aristides, AD 126), within 68 years of Paul's writing of Romans.

Nothing in the Biblical text implies or compels a conclusion that the arsenokoit stem ever meant homosexual.

Rick Brentlinger
http://www.gaychristian101.com/

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