Does Jude condemn gays?

Jude 6 - "reserved in everlasting chains
under darkness"

I. Jude 7 links fornication and strange flesh, not human flesh, so in context Jude is referring to angels, not to gay men, not to lesbian women, not to bisexuals, not to transsexuals. And by the way, that is not a "gay" interpretation. Many anti-gay heterosexual Christian scholars teach the same thing GayChristian101 teaches about this passage.

II. Jewish teaching in the first century AD was that the women of Sodom were trying to have sex with fallen angels so they could have supernatural children, like the giants in Genesis 6:2-13, who were the product of sex between earthly women and "the sons of God" (fallen angels).

These fallen angels changed the order of their nature and had sexual relations with the daughters of men, Testament of Naphtali 3:3-5. In the Sodom story, the men of Sodom tried to gang rape the angel visitors. The link is humans attempting to have sex with angels, not homosexuality - two men or two women falling in love and getting married.

III. According to many anti-gay Christians, the men of Sodom were "going after strange flesh" alleged by anti-gay Christians to mean homosexual sex, attempting to have sex with someone of the same gender.

When we consider what the Bible actually says however, that interpretation is nonsense because the Bible never says that in the Old Testament or the New Testament.

When gay Christians disagree with the illogical but traditional interpretation, does that mean gays are trying to alibi their sin?

Or do many heterosexual Christians agree with gay Christians that Jude describes a "sex with angels" problem?

Surprisingly, even a conservative Calvinist Bible teacher like John MacArthur rejects the convoluted traditional interpretation and agrees with gay Christians - that its a "sex with angels" issue.

Conservative heterosexual Calvinist Bible expositor John MacArthur agrees with gay Christians about Jude! Isn't that amazing?


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